Many have asked what essetial ingredients formulate the Arabic Culture. Since this deals with such a large area, in both time and space, it is very much so as G.H von Wright writes, hard to limit it from earlier and contemporary civilizations. The question is if one is able to/should attempt to do so.

Through history many different tribes have ruled Mesopotamia (which becomes a natural starting point concerning the Arabic culture since it was there the first "culture" evolved) and the borders have changed dramatically, but evenso, the Arabic civilization/culture is the worlds oldest, still existing culture. It has a continuity, without any real ruptures, steeming from the first agricultural societies which arose in the area about 10,000 years ago, and has thereafter, with steady intervals absorbed other cultures and in that way been in a state of constant change. Perhaps that was the condition for continuity - the ability to adjust to and give inspiration to other cultures.

Is then the Arabic culture existing after the Grecco-Roman era the same culture which existed before the antiquity, or did a new Arabic culture arise? Professionals on the theory feel that the post-antiquity Arabic culture was the same as the one flourishing before the Hellenistic era. Since different tribes/peoples have succeeded eachother, constantly adding new elements to the culture, but always keeping the distinct features which evolved already by the first culture builders, the Sumerians, without the culture falling apart, one can rule out the idea that the Arabic culture has its origin in the Hellenistic world, which was thousands of years younger.

But could one say, as Toynbee, that the roots of the Arabic culture are to find in the ancient Jewish and Persian religions and states? Most claim that one cannot agree with that. According to history/tradition, Abraham came from Ur, which was one of the most prominent cities in - Mesopotamia. In accordance with that fact, the Jewish culture and religion (and so Christianity and Islam) are derived from the Arabic culture instead of the opposite. But what about the Persian culture? From what predominant does it arise, and why?

The Sumerians (the first of the long line of people inhabiting/ruling Mesopotamia), lived in Mesopotamia where they developed the first culture long before the Persian culture had seen the day. During what is now called the Jemdet Nasr period (around 3,200-3,000 BC), the Mesopotamian culture (which came to be the Arabic culture with modifications) expanded to what was then Elam in Iran. Accordingly, the Arabic (Mesopotamian) culture preceded also the Persian culture.

The conclusion of the second question is that the Arabic culture cannot trace its roots in neither the Greek, Jewish or Persian culture since it simply preceded them. More likely one could say that the cultures which evolved in Europe and in many other parts of the world in one way or another can trace some of their roots in the Arabic culture.